stotch9021 stotch9021
  • 02-04-2020
  • History
contestada

1.Why were most Europeans in the Middle Ages unable to
read or write?

Respuesta :

daryionmct daryionmct
  • 02-04-2020

Answer:

Only Very High Class men were educated.

Explanation:

Answer Link
k798 k798
  • 02-04-2020
that means Europe doesn’t have a very high “literacy rate” idk if that helped but it’s true :) sorry ,,
Answer Link

Otras preguntas

Most people don't think about the dangers that may be in their home or work environments. What kinds of dangers can people encounter indoors? What can people do
The first side of the triangle is 6 cm longer than the second side. The third side is 4 cm shorter than the first side. How long is each side if the perimeter o
explain in terms of atomic structure why the atomic radius of K is larger than that of Na
How do you rewrite and then solve -5 - (-7)
*50 POINTS-Select the correct answer from each drop-down menu. Audience has a huge impact on the tone brainstorming And style or drafting Audience has a huge im
use the graph below to fill in the blank with the correct number: f(-2)= _____
Find the area of shaded part .​
Where did the Mughal Empire arise in the 1500s?
f(x) = 3x – 4, what is x if f(x) = 5​
how do u get your ex back